Index To Scriptures Listed On This Chart

The word 'hell' in the English Authorized Version is rendered from three different Greek words: Gehenna, Hades, and Tartarus. Scholars are in practical agreement that Hades and Tartarus should never have been rendered as 'hell' and such mistranslation has been a source of untold confusion. Therefore, the only Greek word which many scholars allow as  properly rendered 'hell' is Gehenna; its twelve New Testament occurrences are listed below.  It should go without saying that if 'hell' is a place of eternal conscious torment, such a doctrine should be explicitly taught in those twelve verses containing the only Greek word which has legitimately (at least according to orthodox tradition) been rendered 'hell' in our English Bibles.
 
 It should come as the utmost shock that NONE of these verses speak of eternal conscious torment. The problem lies not in what these verses say, but the assumptions which are brought to the text upon reading them.  For example, when one reads a verse stating that some shall be 'cast into hellfire', they assume that such a verse is talking about a place of eternal torment beyond this life, although the passage never specifically states this.  However, such verses are then quoted as 'proof' that such a place of eternal conscious torment exists. 

I ask the reader to carefully consider the twelve occurrences of Gehenna listed below, noting that none of them teach eternal conscious torment unless these assumptions are already implanted in the mind of the reader then brought to the text.  The reader must then ask himself or herself; if these verses do not explicitly teach eternal conscious torment, then where are the verses that do? Let THOSE be quoted, if they may be found at all, in defense of this doctrine and not these which rely completely upon our assumptions.

At this point, this kingdom was being offered only to the Jewish nation, and as such, only a Jew would know what Gehenna was.  All speculation aside, Gehenna is NOT 'hell'. Gehenna was the city garbage dump in which the bodies of reprobates were thrown denying them a proper burial and signifying their unworthiness for a resurrection and future place in God's kingdom. Gehenna then becomes at its onset a fitting description for the final destruction of the wicked; a destruction from which there will be no resurrection.

Modern theology not only must use speculation and tricks of language and logic to turn Gehenna into 'hell', but they also hide these processes from the average Bible student by simply rendering Gehenna as 'hell' without making them aware of the convoluted process by which this was accomplished.

What the reader is never told is that the progression of punishment described was the known judicial law of Jesus day.  Gehenna Fire denotes simply the most severe form of punishment the judicial system could inflict: not only death, but to deny one proper burial and cast them into the garbage dump signifying their unworthiness of a resurrection.  

Note the ominous quotation  that ends each; 'Where their worm dieth not and the fire is not quenched.'  How does this teach eternal conscious torment? What we are never told is that this is a quotation of Isa 66:24 shown in the next section.  There the fire and worms feed upon CARCASSES, which are, literally,  DEAD BODIES. By all valid rules of interpretation these verses have nothing to do with the conscious torment of immortal souls in hell, nor can they be made to do so without violating the text. Those who seek to use these in proof of this doctrine need to answer one simple question; how do you eternally torment a dead body?

The following facts must accounted for:

1) There is no mention of physical torment spoken of in these passages
2) There is no mention of an immortal soul in the passages.
3) They are a quotation of an Old Testament passage.
4) That Old Testament passage says that the 'fire' and 'worms' feed on DEAD BODIES, not immortal souls.

Oddly enough, some modern theologians, recognizing these problems but not willing to live with the implications, say that because 'Gehenna' in these verses MUST refer to an eternal hell, then the 'Carcasses' or the 'Worms' of Isa 66:24 MUST be a reference to immortal souls.  God will ultimately judge this type of 'scholarship' which would void His word in order to maintain tradition. Let them then produce those verses WHICH CLEARLY TEACH THAT GEHENNA MUST REFER TO A PLACE OF ETERNAL CONSCIOUS TORMENT.

Because these verses are directly related to Matthew 18:9 and 5:29-100, all six references are thus irrelevant concerning eternal conscious torment.
 

We are not to fear the death of the body only because God has purposed to give life (soul, Gk. psyche) back to every man in the resurrection .  Man does not ultimately hold the power of life (soul) and death.  We are to fear the one who can destroy not only our body, but ultimately our prospects of any future life by casting us into Gehenna, a fate which was reserved for those unworthy of resurrection. (See Above)

Evangelical theology postulates that 'destroy' here does not mean 'destroy' but 'torment eternally'. The only thing 'tortured' in an explanation such as this is the language of scripture which wears on its face an illegitimate attempt to squeeze in a doctrine where it doesn't belong.
 

While not containing the word 'hell', the following verses are listed here because they bear directly on those listed above.  Matthew 18:19 is listed because it appears in the context of those verses above, showing that Gehenna Fire is an eternal fire. Therefore those verses listed above are eternal by direct association. The reference from Matthew 25 is listed because it also mentions this 'eternal fire'.  Additionally this 'eternal fire' is mentioned again in Jude 7 also listed below. The remaining verses are the Old Testament references, which  contain the language Jesus was quoting within the context of his usage of Gehenna.  His hearers would have been familiar with such language and would not have drawn arbitrary conclusions about the meaning of his words as much of evangelical theology does today.  Not only do those verses which contain Gehenna fail to teach eternal conscious torment, the verses below which clarify them fail to as well.  We must conclude according to all reliable  laws of interpretation and language that GEHENNA IS NOT A PLACE OF ETERNAL CONSCIOUS TORMENT
 

Thus, what 'everlasting punishment' may be must be established from other scriptures which speak in clear and specific language.  'Everlasting punishment' simply does not supply us with enough information about what the punishment might be. Eternal Torment would be an everlasting punishment if other clear verses could be produced which state this, but then again eternal death is also an everlasting punishment. What say the other scriptures?
 
Who shall be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of his power. 2 Thess 1:9

If 'Carcass' or 'worm' can be interpreted to mean 'immortal soul burning in hell' then surely words have no meaning and we are hopeless to determine with any certainty the true meaning of ANY Biblical word or phrase.

For the Biblical meaning of 'unquenchable fires' and 'undying worms' see below.

However, instead of using Jesus' quotation of this passage to interpret Mark 9, many assign an interpretation to Mark 9 based on assumptions and pre-conceived ideas, then attempt to read such an interpretation back into Isaiah 66:24 where it clearly does not, and cannot fit. Such handling of scripture is a recipe for disaster.

The fire and the worms of Gehenna clearly feed on carcasses; literally dead bodies. Far from supporting the doctrine of eternal torment, this verse is fatal to it. 

The verses containing Gehenna listed above are always quoted to prove the teaching that 'hell' contains fires that will never, ever, EVER go out, but the language is taken from the verses listed to the left.  Why are we never quoted these to explain the language Jesus was using?  Let the BIBLE define what an 'unquenchable fire' is, let us not just assume it.

These verses show that in each case the 'unquenchable fire' eventually did go out.  Even in our English language, 'unquenchable' does not carry the meaning of something that will never cease.  An unquenchable fire is not one that by necessity NEVER goes out. It is however one that CANNOT BE PUT OUT. For example, a firefighter may not be able to put out a fire, it is therefore unquenchable.  Is does not however follow that the fire will NEVER go out.  The fire will burn until it accomplishes its purpose or runs out of fuel to burn, man being powerless to stop it. An 'unquenchable desire to know the truth' is not a desire which of necessity which will NEVER cease. It is a desire which will continue relentlessly until it accomplishes its ultimate goal, nothing else being able to quell or satisfy it.

This is the way in which this phase is used in the Bible. See the verses to the left.

The reasoning which infers: 'since immortal souls cannot burn up, the fires of hell will never go out' is simply begging the question.  There is nothing in the Bible which ever states that the fires of Gehenna burn immortal souls which can never be destroyed.  Furthermore, there is not one verse in the entire Bible that teaches the immortality of the soul. On the contrary, Isaiah 66:24 tells us exactly what the fire does burn:

And they shall go forth, and look upon the carcases of the men that have transgressed against me: for their worm shall not die, neither shall their fire be quenched

What about the worms that do not die? To say that an 'undying worm' is an immortal worm is to say what the Bible does not.  Simply, like the fire, the work of the worms cannot be stopped, nor will they die until they accomplish the task of complete and utter destruction.
 

Notice carefully how an argument which attempts to make this mean that the inhabitants of these cities are burning eternally in hell simply destroys the force of Jude's argument.  These cities are set forth as examples of the wrath of God on sin, but how are they set forth as an example; by suffering the vengeance of eternal fire. But how would this be an example to anyone if this meant 'immortal souls burning in hell'.  No one can point to anyone burring in hell as an example of God's wrath against sin.  No one can SEE that anyone is burning in hell. Immortal souls in hell set forth no example. What can be seen and used as an example is that these cities were destroyed, and never rebuilt.  The fire not only reduced these cities to ruin, the judgment of God  also ensured that they could never recover under the vengeance of an eternal fire.

Scripturally speaking, an unquenchable fire is one that man cannot put out, but will burn until it accomplishes its goal or runs out of fuel.  An eternal fire, or everlasting fire is one that is permanent in its effects as long as God decrees it to be so. These are the meanings of these terms derived from the way the Bible itself uses these terms, not an arbitrary interpretation of what they MUST mean

Incidentally, the verse, nonetheless, speaks nothing of conscious torment.

The following seven verses containing the phrase 'weeping (or wailing) and gnashing of teeth' are almost universally applied to the doctrine of eternal conscious torment.  Because 'hell' is assumed to be the place where this condition exists, these verses are universally applied to this doctrine based on that assumption only with little regard for what these texts actually say. These verses represent not only one condition that brings about 'weeping and gnashing of teeth', but three. By reason of assumption, all three conditions are applied to the doctrine of eternal torment, then quoted as proof that such a teaching exists in the scriptures. This is a classic case of circular reasoning.

Of the most interest is the fact that NONE of these speak of 'weeping and gnashing of teeth' as an ETERNAL condition. This is of no small significance.  Not only do those passages which do speak of an eternal punishment (see above) fail to mention any torment, those that speak of torment in punishment fail to mention that such a punishment is eternal. The one who seeks to equate these verses with the doctrine of eternal conscious torment does so only on the basis of three assumptions, none of which can be determined from the texts themselves:

1)That these passages apply to all the wicked throughout eternity in contrast to a specific class of people.

2) That these verses describe a condition of mankind beyond this life

3) That such a condition extends throughout eternity.

So we have three facts that MUST be reckoned with:

1)Those passage which speak of an ETERNAL punishment fail to mention any torment in such punishment.
2) Those passages which speak of torment fail to mention that the condition is eternal.
3) None of these verses mention 'hell' at all (Either Hades or Gehenna) and the phrase 'weeping and gnashing of teeth' is NEVER used to describe either.

Clearly someone has clouded these issues in order to uphold much cherished beliefs.
 

Torment yes, eternal no

This view also ignores the fact that Jesus is discussing events which are to happen specifically at the close of THIS AGE, and the punishments to befall those wicked who are alive at that time.  These verses are not generalized descriptions of what 'hell' is like, but specific prophecies for the end of the age although they are almost never preached in this way.

In the end of the age the angels will gather the wicked then living and cast them into 'a furnace of fire'.  You can bet that when living, breathing men and women are cast into a 'furnace of fire' there will indeed be 'weeping and gnashing of teeth'.  There is however nothing to suggest that such a fire is 'hell', or that it continues eternally. Had Jesus meant to express this thought he could have easily spoken once more of Gehenna, but it is very telling indeed that he did not. The phrase 'weeping and gnashing' of teeth is NEVER used to describe Gehenna.

Please see our work "The Furnace of Fire and the Wrath of God", parts one, two, and three, for a detailed study of these events.

Torment yes, eternal no

Torment yes, eternal no

When the lord therefore of the vineyard cometh, what will he do unto those husbandmen? They say unto him, He will miserably destroy those wicked men, and will let out his vineyard unto other husbandmen, which shall render him the fruits in their seasons... Therefore say I unto you, The kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof...  And when the chief priests and Pharisees had heard his parables, they perceived that he spake of them... And Jesus answered and spake unto them  (the Pharisees) again by parables, and said, The kingdom of heaven is like unto a certain king, which made a marriage for his son, And sent forth his servants to call them that were bidden to the wedding: and they would not come... But when the king heard thereof, he was wroth: and he sent forth his armies, and destroyed those murderers, and burned up their city. Then saith he to his servants, The wedding is ready, but they which were bidden were not worthy.  And when the king came in to see the guests, he saw there a man which had not on a wedding garment: And he saith unto him, Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding garment? And he was speechless. Then said the king to the servants, Bind him hand and foot, and take him away, and cast him into outer darkness; there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth. For many are called, but few are chosen. Then went the Pharisees, and took counsel how they might entangle him in his talk.

These verses were aimed directly at the Jewish national leaders, the Pharisees. By rejecting their Messiah., the Jewish nation was cast into 'outer darkness' for the past 20 centuries, and has endured untold persecution, weeping, and gnashing of teeth at the hands of gentile nations.  The parable of 'wedding garment' shows that the Jewish nation was powerless to stop this without submitting to the authority and righteousness of their Messiah.  Their status as 'children of the kingdom' would not get them into the 'wedding', and they were thrust out.  
 
The Pharisees knew that Jesus was speaking of them.  How is it that most modern evangelicals do not? We can praise God that the Jewish nation will be restored in the coming kingdom age; thus 'outer darkness' is not 'hell', nor is it a permanent condition.  Then again, the Bible never said it was.
 

Torment yes, eternal no

Torment yes, eternal no

Torment yes, eternal no

'Cut asunder' refers to the most brutal of the Roman forms of scourging; a fitting symbol for the wrath of God that such a one will be made to endure. Even so, the verse in no way states that such a punishment is eternal.
 

Torment yes, eternal no

And that servant, which knew his lord's will, and prepared not himself, neither did according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes. But he that knew not, and did commit things worthy of stripes, shall be beaten with few stripes. For unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall be much required: and to whom men have committed much, of him they will ask the more.
 
For further explanation see Section III

Again, nothing indicates this is an eternal condition. and no mention is made of 'hell'.  For more information see also our chapter: The Day of Judgment
 

The following verses expand upon and are related to those above. Other clarifying verses are listed so that we may compare scripture with scripture and arrive at a proper and Biblical conclusion. These passages are considered perhaps the strongest on this doctrine. These are some of the most misunderstood verses in all the Bible and require diligent study and a sensitivity to the symbolic context in which some of them occur. They each fail to maintain the doctrine which they are set forth to prove. Our interpretations of these verses simply must not be guided by emotion or assumption but by a careful and consistent comparison of scripture with scripture.

Torment yes, eternal no
See Notes

Obviously, the passage contains the terms, 'fire', 'brimstone', 'torment', 'smoke', and 'forever and ever'. One who has already been indoctrinated with the teaching of an eternal hell really cannot be faulted for equating this passage with that concept. However, what is almost universally overlooked, is not what this passage says, but what it does not say.  In order for this passage to teach the doctrine of eternal conscious torment, it must prove three things: 1) That the passage applies to all wicked men and not just a specific class, 2) That the passage speaks of a condition which pertains to mankind beyond this life, and 3) The passage teaches such a condition must continue throughout eternity.  It is my earnest contention that none of these can be proven from this passage.  I further contend that the passage not only has no application to the doctrine of eternal torment, but has a much more likely and sound interpretation.  On account of the gross misunderstandings surrounding this passage, we will comment at some length.  We will cover the three points listed above one at a time.

First, does the passage say that the specified torment applies to all the wicked throughout the ages. No, it applies to a specific class: And the third angel followed them, saying with a loud voice, If any man worship the beast and his image, and receive his mark in his forehead, or in his hand, The same shall drink etc.  It is amazing to me the number of Christians who cannot begin to explain what the 'beast' or its 'mark' is, but they are sure this passage teaches 'hell'.  However, according to the passage, it is only this specific class to whom these warnings are issued.

Second, does the passage teach that this is a torment of mankind beyond this life?  Again the text answers no! Notice carefully that the standard interpretation equates 'fire and brimstone' with the 'lake of fire and brimstone' first mentioned in Revelation 19:10. But notice carefully (see verse listed below) that in that very passage (Rev 19:10) the only ones who go into that 'lake of fire' are the beast and false prophet, the rest of mankind is simply killed. Wicked mankind does not go into the lake of fire until after the 1000 year reign of Christ, and the Great White Throne judgment described in Revelation 20. If in fact the 'fire and brimstone' from Revelation 14, is referring to the 'lake of fire'  from Revelation 19 and 20, then we must ask why the warning is separated from its execution contextually by six chapters, and chronologically by over 1000 years!
 
What we have here is a classic case of not being able to see the forest for the proverbial trees. We have become so blinded by our assumptions that we cannot see that the fulfillment of this passage is not found in Revelation 19 and 20, but begins immediately following in the Harvest which is described, beginning in Revelation 14:14 and continues through Revelation 16.  The harvest which is described in Revelation 14 in which the wicked are cast into 'the great winepress of the wrath of God' is simply a symbolic representation of what follow in Chapters 15-19; the seven 'bowl' judgments of God's wrath.  When the first bowl is poured out in Revelation 16:2, what do we read?
 
And the first went, and poured out his vial upon the earth; and there fell a noisome and grievous sore upon the men which had the mark of the beast, and upon them which worshipped his image.

Here we see beginning the exact fulfillment of those warnings given in Revelation 14.  The warning is for a specific class of people, and the torment falls on that same class of people. Those worshipping the Beast, its image, or have taken its mark! The torment by fire is mentioned in Revelation 16 verses 8 and 9:

And the fourth angel poured out his vial upon the sun; and power was given unto him to scorch men with fire. And men were scorched with great heat, and blasphemed the name of God, which hath power over these plagues: and they repented not to give him glory.

This same event is described in Luke 17:28-30 shown to the left.  Notice that in the day the Lord is revealed (not in an eternal hell), it rains FIRE AND BRIMSTONE from heaven, just as it did in the days of Lot.  In Revelation 14-19 we find the detailed account and fulfillment of these events.  They are not 'Hell' but the torment of those who are found worshipping the beast at Jesus return.

What does Revelation 14:10 mean when it says that the wicked shall be tormented "in the presence of the holy angels, and in the presence of the Lamb". We have seen that this verse cannot refer to the lake of fire, but instead refers to the seven last bowl judgments of God's wrath. Consider 2 Thess 1:7-10 shown to the left and compare it to Revelation 14:9-11.
 
Most believers have been told over and over that both of these passages refer to "hell". However, what most do not realize is that IF both really do refer to hell, then clearly they contradict  each other.  Look carefully at the two passages. Is the torment IN Christ's presence (Rev 14:9-11), or AWAY FROM his presence (2 Thes 1:7-10)?  Is there a contradiction here? The fact is, there is no contradiction once we realize that neither of these verses refer to "hell" at all. After the seventh trumpet sounds in Revelation 11:15 Jesus takes the kingdom. We are told that he "descends" and calls the elect out to meet him "in the air".

For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first: Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord. 
1 Thes 4:16-17

It is immediately following this that the bowl judgments are poured out upon the wicked. Christ comes, 'and all his holy angels with him'. Jesus meets the righteous, 'in the air', the angels perform 'the harvest' and the wicked are literally tormented in their presence. How harmonious the Bible becomes when we simply read what it says without inserting our pre-conceived ideas. In contrast, the passage from 2 Thessalonians refers to the eternal destruction (the second death) with is forever away from the presence of Christ and his saints.

Which brings us to our final point: Does this passage teach that the torment of Revelation 14:9-11 extends eternally? No it does not.  First of all consider the following from Revelation 15:1: Then I saw another sign in heaven, great and marvelous: seven angels having the seven last plagues, for in them the wrath of God is complete. If these seven last plagues complete the wrath of God against those worshiping the beast, then surely God's wrath cannot extend eternally beyond them.  So what is the meaning of the phrase: 'And the smoke of their torment ascendeth up for ever and ever'?  The language is clearly symbolic and is taken from Isaiah's account of the destruction of Edom shown to the left.  Edom was to be destroyed but was the smoke to literally arise forever?  In the same symbolic language describing the destruction of Babylon in Revelation 19:3, we also read that its smoke arises 'for ever and ever'.  These terms denote the magnitude of events that will never be forgotten in the minds of those who witnessed them.  They will ever stand as a memorial to God's severe judgment  against sin.  Those who teach that 'the smoke of their torment ascendeth up forever and ever' must be taken in a strict literal sense must reckon with the following facts:

1) The passage does not say that the torment continues eternally, only that the smoke of the torment will rise up eternally.

2) The language is taken from an Old Testament passage in which the figure is clearly not to be taken literally and also an earthly condition. In Isaiah 34 it is the land which burns with fire and brimstone which would not be quenched.  This is in perfect agreement with Luke 17:29-30:

But the same day that Lot went out of Sodom it rained fire and brimstone from heaven, and destroyed them all. Even thus shall it be in the day when the Son of man is revealed.
Luke 17:29-30

Thus this passage speaks not a word about an eternal hell. If, as we are told time and again, we are to let the Bible define its own language and symbols, then this verse can only be taken in the same way in which the same language was used in Isaiah's prophecy which it was taken from.  Anything else would be misleading and dishonest. For those who feel the passage MUST be taken as a reference to an eternally burning hell, then it is for them to also explain why the exact language this passage is taken from speaks not a word about hell but of the land being turned to fire and brimstone as a purely earthly judgment

We are left only with the words 'they have no rest day and night'. This is undoubtedly true as long as the seven bowl judgments continue, terminating with the battle of Armageddon and bringing about the deaths of these individuals in Revelation 19:21. 

 Please see our work "The Furnace of Fire and the Wrath of God", parts one, two, and three, for a detailed study of these events.

For it is the day of the LORD's vengeance, and the year of recompences for the controversy of Zion. And the streams thereof shall be turned into pitch, and the dust thereof into brimstone, and the land thereof shall become burning pitch. It shall not be quenched night nor day; the smoke thereof shall go up for ever: from generation to generation it shall lie waste; none shall pass through it for ever and ever.

The first two occupants of the 'lake of fire' are the Beast and False prophet, but when we enquire as to their identity we generally get a different answer for each person we ask.  The modern evangelical will answer along these lines: The Beast is the 'Antichrist', a powerful word leader who will arise in the end times and via one world government rule the entire earth. The False Prophet is a religious leader who with the Antichrist leads the world into one united false religion. While this is a rather novel (and I might add relatively new) teaching concerning the Beast and False Prophet, there are problems with this interpretation.  If this be the case, then one would assume that these are humans. That would seem to follow without question.  But the trouble is this: If these are indeed human, then they are the only two wicked humans who will escape the Great White Throne Judgment.  These would go into the Lake of Fire BEFORE the judgment, in contrast to the rest of wicked mankind who go into the lake of fire FOLLOWING judgment. Not even Satan is thrown into the 'Lake of Fire' prior to this judgment. The Bible is clear that every child of Adam must appear for judgment to give account; how do these escape?  I suppose we could say that their wickedness is such that it precludes judgment and they are sentenced to the lake of fire directly, but that would be a matter of pure guesswork.

I feel the obvious answer to this problem is in the interpretation placed upon the 'Beast' and 'False Prophet' by the protestant faiths for 350 years: that these are not men at all but mere symbols for satanic systems. The 'beast' represents those worldly political systems, and the 'False Prophet' those religious systems which deceived mankind.  Notice how beautifully this fits with the imagery of Revelation 19-20.  In Revelation 20, Jesus reigns for 1000 years with his saints.  In order to do this, those political and religious systems which stood in opposition to His Kingdom must be done away with.  Thus we see them cast into the 'lake of fire' immediately preceding this reign.  By going into the Lake of Fire they are done away with permanently and eternally. 

Someone might immediately object that it makes no sense to cast 'systems' into a lake of fire.  How would one do that anyway?  This ignores two basic facts: 1)The language is obviously symbolical.  It is only those who need to take it literally in order to hang onto a much cherished belief who seem to not be able to see this, and 2) Revelation 20:14 states that 'death and hell' are also cast into the lake of fire.  Therefore the question is unavoidable no matter what conclusions you draw concerning the Beast and False Prophet.  How do you cast something abstract like death into a literal lake of fire? The answer lies in the obviously symbolic nature of the passage. Please see below and the next section for more detail.
 
We are left only with the Devil of whom it is said along with the Beast and False prophet: 'shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever'.  It matters little what conclusions we reach on the meaning of this phrase, because as the next two verses indicate there is nothing said of mankind being tormented forever and ever.  This is clearly a designation which is applied only  to the Devil, The Beast, and The False Prophet.

It does not follow, as some suggest, that this verse 'proves' that whatever is cast into the lake of fire is thus tormented forever and ever.  How would you or could you torment death?  How could you torment the grave (Hades, see section IV)?  In addition, we find elsewhere the following in clear and non-symbolic language:
 
Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; Heb 2:14
 
Clearly the Devil is to be destroyed. So, if the Devil is to be destroyed, and the Beast and False Prophet are systems, then how can they be 'tormented day and night forever and ever'? We have to look for what this might mean within the symbolical language in which it is written.

In Revelation 20:10, the word “tormented” is the Greek basanizo, which originally meant a means of testing and examination. It was used of a touchstone for metals, and later to scourge in a general sense. It is this latter usage from which the translators derived the English “torment.” However, the implication of the passage signifies that Satan’s shame and dishonor will give him a mark of infamy forever, and his destruction is reward for his failure to test out at the proving stone. It will be a witness against him forever by all who behold him.  This fits perfectly with the description of Satan given in Ezekiel 28:18:

You have defiled your sanctuaries by the multitude of your iniquities, by the iniquity of your traffick; therefore will I bring forth a fire from the midst of you, it shall devour you, and I will bring you to ashes upon the earth IN THE SIGHT OF ALL THEM THAT BEHOLD YOU

To the contrary, inserted within the immediate context of this lake of fire in relation to mankind is: This is the second death. The meaning should be obvious to those who have not already made up their minds that the 'lake of fire' must be taken literally at all costs.  The 'lake of fire' is an obvious symbol who's relation to mankind God has taken extra care to explain.  For mankind, this lake of fire means a second death. If we were meant to take the lake of fire as literal then why insert this phrase which would serve only to confuse its meaning?

The fact remains that these are the only two passages which speak of humans being cast into the 'lake of fire'.  Neither one speaks of any torment beyond, and both call this condition 'the second death'.  That 'second death' itself must be taken symbolically in order to avoid doing violence to the text is explained in the next section.
 

While these verses do not mention hell or torment, an understanding of them is imperative for the proper interpretation of Revelation 20:14 and 21:8.  Here theologians have reversed the obvious symbolism in order to make the symbol a reality and the reality a symbol. Whereas the Bible says that the 'lake of fire' IS the second death, the symbol is reversed to mean 'the second death' IS the 'lake of fire'.  These verses show the impossibility of doing that, and remaining faithful to the Bible's use of language.

The lake of fire is described using two constructions, the first in Revelation 20:14 'This IS the second death', and the second in Revelation 21:8 'Which is (or, that is to say) the second death'. The first group of verses describes the way 'second death' was used earlier in the Book of Revelation. The second group shows the familiar way in which Revelation defines its own symbols.  Unfortunately the same logic is never applied to 'the lake of fire').  The last group shows the scriptural use of the Greek phrase ho estin (that is ) which is uses in Revelation 21:8. The purpose of all these scripture citations is to show the absolute fallacy of taking an obvious symbol as something literal in its most strict sense.

Furthermore, when the phrase appears again in Revelation 20:6, it again appears in quite straightforward language with nothing indicating that it might be a symbol for something much greater.  Now, look at Luke 20:35-36 shown to the left.  The resurrection of the just means something very special; it means that those so resurrected cannot die again.  Having been raised from the first death, these righteous who come forth are not subject to die a second time. However we know that not only will the righteous be raised, but all will be raised:

And have hope toward God, which they themselves also allow, that there shall be a resurrection of the dead, both of the just and unjust. Acts 25:15

It is however this one special class who will be raised as such that they cannot die a second time, and Revelation 20:6 carries this exact thought.  Those raised in the first resurrection are not subject to a second death. We have no reason to believe that the language is a riddle.  We have no reason but to take it for exactly what it says. The 'second death' MEANS THE SECOND DEATH! He that overcomes will not DIE A SECOND TIME.

Shortly after, in Revelation 20:14 we are met with a rather enigmatic phrase: ' And death and hell (Hades - See Section IV) were cast into the lake of fire.'  The reader would have encountered this 'lake of fire' twice before this in Rev 19:20 and 20:10 where the Beast, False Prophet, and the Devil were cast into it.  However, the phrase at Revelation 20:14 seems problematic: How do you cast death and Hades into a lake of fire? Death and Hades are not material things, personages, or humans. How do you cast these into a lake of fire? I have yet to have one believer in eternal torment who can answer the question in any kind of meaningful way.  But the verse should not present a problem because the key to its interpretation is inserted immediately following:

And death and hell were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death.

The lake of fire is merely a symbol for a concept the Bible student would already be familiar with, the second death.  It is a fitting symbol for ultimate destruction in that anything submerged in a lake of fire is ensured utter and complete destruction, never to be recovered.  Men are subject to die once.  All men will get a resurrection based on Jesus' ransom sacrifice on our behalf. But those who die a second time go into the symbolic lake of fire from which no one will be recovered, because having spurned their Savior, there is no greater ransom that can be paid on their behalf.  Death and Hades also going into this lake of fire indicates that they will cease to be eternally. As Paul wrote:
The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. 1Cor 15:26

Therefore the lake of fire stands as a symbol of final, total, irrecoverable destruction.  To mankind this means a second death. Nothing could be clearer.

For absolute proof that the 'lake of fire' is symbolic, please see the next two groups of verses.

The seven Spirits of God ARE seven lamps of fire

The seven mountain ARE seven heads

The ten kings ARE ten horns

The people and multitudes ARE waters

The righteousness of the saints IS fine linen

And then try to maintain these things in the strictest most literal way possible. No one would accept any such interpretation as anything but foolishness.  This is however exactly what is done at Revelation 20:14.  We read that the lake of fire IS the second death.  'Second Death' is what explains the symbolical 'lake of fire'.  How is this not clear to those who read these verses?

And I saw three unclean spirits like frogs come out of the mouth of the dragon, and out of the mouth of the beast, and out of the mouth of the false prophet. For they are the spirits of devils, working miracles, which go forth unto the kings of the earth and of the whole world, to gather them to the battle of that great day of God Almighty.

In this group, which clarifies Revelation 21:8, the construction is even stronger by using the Greek phrase ho estin, or in English 'that is ..' A study of the way this phrase is used in the New Testament makes it clear that popular notions about the lake of fire are simply incorrect.  The Bible did not say, as we would expect if the doctrine of eternal torment was true,
 
 'the lake of fire, which is called the second death.'
 
 On the contrary it uses a construction whereby the first clause is ambiguous and is clarified by the second clause:
 
 'that lake of fire, that is to say, the second death'. 
 
We are clearly to take the second clause in a literal, explanatory way, not the reverse. Please study the examples to the left to see for yourself how the New Testament uses this terminology.

If we were indeed supposed to take this in the reverse order from what the construction demands, as we are told by popular theology, then we can once again be sure that words and phrases have no meaning and can be twisted to whatever means best suit us.

The 'Lake of Fire' IS 'The Second Death', not the reverse

So, Paul used to the second clause connected by 'which is' to clarify and explain the first. The church is not literally Christ's body.  Indeed Jesus had a glorious spirit body upon His resurrection, but the Church is not literally His body.  It is His body only in a figurative and symbolical sense.

'for his body's sake' (not literally, but figuratively, that is to say) 'the church'. Hence:

body = figurative, symbolic
 church = explanatory, reality

In the same way:

'the lake of fire' (not literally but figuratively, that is to say) 'the second death'. Hence:
 
lake of fire=figurative, symbolic
second death=explanatory, reality

The following ten verses are used to teach the doctrine of 'Degrees of Punishment in 'Hell'.  With the exception of Matthew 11:23-24, in which the Greek word Hades has been rendered 'hell', 'hell' appears nowhere in the context of any of these.  Hades should never have been rendered 'hell' and will  be discussed in section IV.  Why, if all these passages teach degrees of punishment in hell, do none of these say 'in hell'?

Torment yes, eternal no

Nor do they imply that these punishments take place 'in hell' because they tell us in clear and unambiguous language the time period in which they do take place: In the day of judgment. 

If the punishments to be meted out described in these verses take place IN the day of judgment, then it is clear that they do not speak at all of any punishment following the judgment.  It is not the fault of the Bible that mankind has developed a faulty view of the duration, nature, and purpose of God's judgment.  Suffice it to say that these verses do not mention hell (with the exception of  Hades in Matthew 11:23, see Section IV) and as such have nothing to do with the doctrine of eternal conscious torment.

There will be punishment and retribution for sin.  But as these verses show, the time and place for that punishment is not hell for all eternity, but in the day of judgment following the resurrection. The day of judgment is one of the central themes of the Bible, and there are literally dozens of passage that detail this judgment.  I invite you to learn more about the judgment by reading our work:
 Man Became a Living Soul

and in particular the chapter
: The Day of Judgment

See also our article:
In The Day of Judgment: Does The Bible Teach Degrees of Punishment in Hell?

Torment yes, eternal no

Torment yes, eternal no

Torment yes, eternal no

Torment yes, eternal no

Torment yes, eternal no

Torment yes, eternal no

SECTION IV -- Verses in Which 'Hell' Has Been Rendered From Hades

The Greek word Hades appears eleven times in the Greek text of the Bible.  With the exception of 1 Cor 15:55, it has been uniformly rendered 'Hell' by the translators of the King James Bible. It is important to note that the majority of Bible scholars admit that 'Hell' is an improper translation and Hades should have never been rendered as such.  Newer Bible versions either transliterate the word, or render it as 'grave'.  Being the exact equivalent of the Hebrew Sheol, the word represents the death state.  Please see our chapter Hellfire and Damnation for more information.

Hades is to be emptied of its occupants (Rev 20:13-14), therefore by definition, being only a temporary condition, no matter what conclusions we draw, these texts have no bearing whatsoever on the doctrine of eternal torment.  

The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. 1 Cor 15:26

'In dealing with this scripture, and the subject of the so-called "intermediate state", it is important that we should confine ourselves to the Word of God, and not go to tradition.  Yet, when nine out of ten believe what they have learnt from tradition, we have a thankless task, so far as pleasing men is concerned'

I am most aware that almost all advocates of eternal torment will never be convinced that this passage is a parable.  The truth is that they so desperately NEED this passage in order to maintain their doctrine.  It is sad that so many cling to this passage to teach literal torment in hell when making the passage literal contradicts so much else of what they hold to be true.  Is being poor a guarantee of salvation?  Does being rich and having nice clothes damn anyone to hell?

Lightfoot, in his commentary on the New Testament from the Talmud wrote concerning this passage:

Whoever believes this not to be a parable, but a true story, let him also believe those little friars whose trade it is to shew the monuments at Jerusalem to pilgrims, and point exactly to the place where the house of the 'rich glutton' stood.  Most accurate keepers of antiquity indeed! who after so many hundreds of years, such overthrows of Jerusalem, such devastations and changes, can rake out of the rubbish the place of so private a house, and such a one too as never had any being, but merely in parable.  And that is was a parable, not only the consent of all expositors may assure us, but the thing itself speaks it.

The main scope and design of it seems this, to hint the destruction of the unbelieving Jews, who though they had Moses and the Prophets, did not believe them, nay, would not believe , though one ( even Jesus) arose from the dead.  For that conclusion of the parable abundantly evidenceth what it aimed at: "If they hear not Moses and the Prophets, neither will they be persuaded though one rose from the dead."

The teaching here is not that of Jesus, but that of the Pharisees in which he used their own false doctrine to 'condemn them out their own mouths'.  We have commented on this passage extensively elsewhere.  For more information please see our Chapter A Weekend in Hell or in the Tomb? 

Bullinger also writes concerning this passage:

It will be asked, is it possible that our Lord would give utterance to such words without giving some warning to us as to the way in which He used them? Well, the answer is such that, warning has been given in the uniform and unanimous teaching of Scripture. His own words: "they have Moses and the Prophets, let them hear them," addressed to the Pharisees through the rich man may be taken as addressed to us also.  We have (as they had) the evidence of the Old Testament (in "Moses and the Prophets"), and we have also the evidence of the New Testament, which accords with the Old.  If we "hear them", it would be impossible for us to suppose, for a moment, that Christ could be teaching, here, that which is the very opposite to that of the whole Word of God

Once again it must be noted that the passage speaks only of Hades which is to be emptied of its occupants and done away with prior to the judgment.  Therefore, no matter what conclusions are drawn from this passage, they ultimately have no bearing upon the doctrine of eternal torment.

SECTION V -- Miscellaneous Verses Sometimes Used To Support This Doctrine

While not containing the word 'Hell', and having no direct relation to verses which do, the verses below are still sometimes brought forth in attempts to bolster this doctrine.  Once again they completely fail in this regard. 

The context plainly declares what the fate of these is to be:  They are to be 'destroyed' and 'utterly perish in their own corruption'.  

Scholars are in almost unanimous agreement that the Hebrew Sheol should never have been rendered 'hell'.  A simple reading of these passages will show that none of them denote a condition of eternal torment.  Thirty-two times Sheol has been rendered 'hell', twenty-nine times 'grave' and three times 'pit'.  Sheol represents simply the grave, or the death state and is a direct equivalent to Greek Hades listed in section IV.  As such, these also represent a temporary condition.  Death and the grave (Hades, Sheol) are to be emptied and done away with, thus these verses have no relevance to the doctrine of Eternal Torment.

Because this chart is mainly designed to deal with New Testament passages and only those Old Testament passages which have direct bearing upon them, we will not list these verses individually here.  They have each been covered elsewhere in detail.  Please see our chapter Hellfire and Damnation for this information.

SECTION VII -- Other Verses Which Speak in Clear Language Concerning of the Fate of the Wicked
 
These verses are never usually brought forth to teach the doctrine of eternal torment although they speak in plain and clear language concerning the fate of the wicked. Even though NONE of the above verses succeed in proving the doctrine of eternal torment, these clear passages are bent to mean what they so clearly DO NOT say in order to maintain that teaching.  The words 'death', 'destroy' and 'perish' have been redefined in order to make them mean 'torment eternally in hell'.  These verses are clear and speak for themselves; they need no explanation. 

The reader is confronted with a very important decision. When we are confronted by a doctrine which can only be maintained based upon assumptions, twisted interpretations, and traditions, and then contradicted in the clearest terms possible such as in the verses listed below, what are we to do? Is it wise to read clear passages in such a way as to make them bend to a doctrine which is nowhere taught in scripture?  These passages speak clearly:  The wicked are to be consumed, die, perish, and be utterly destroyed.  God could not have made it any plainer. Will YOU listen?

In every case in this section the advocate of eternal torment is forced to read the language in a way that goes contrary to its natural and plain meaning.